15 Sample Tests For The National Examination Edited By: Ms. Dung Purple
Nguyen Trung Truc High School - School year: 2014-2015
Page 1
SAMPLE TEST 01
***
Mark the letter a, b, c, or d on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 1. The criminal was sentenced to death because of ____ of his crime.
A. the severity B. the complexity C. a punishment D. the importance
Question 2. The discovery was a major ____ for research workers
A. breakthrough B. breakdown C. break-in D. breakout
Question 3. “Would you like me to get a taxi?” - “____.”
A. That would be delightful. Thanks B. Well, let’s see.
C. Yes, please, if it’s no bother D. Yes, I see.
Question 4. You have a good feeling about yourself and____ when you volunteer.
A. others B. other C. the other D. the others
Question 5. If it ____ their encouragement, he could have given it up.
A. had been for B. hadn’t been C. hadn’t been for D. wouldn’t have been for
Question 6. By the end of this month I____ for this company for two years.
A. have been working B. will have been working C. will be working D. will work
Question 7. Flooding in April is an unusual ____ in this area.
A. occur B. occurrence C. occurring D. occurred
Question 8. Lorie is very thin, ____ her young sister, who is quite heavy.
A. dissimilar to B. unlikely C. unlike D. dislike
Question 9. It is a fact that____ form of energy.
A. electricity being the most useful B. electricity the most useful
C. the most useful in electricity D. electricity is the most useful
Question 10. Please ____ and see us some time. You‘re always welcome.
A. come to B. come about C. come around D. come away.
Question 11. Only in the Civil War ____ killed or wounded.
A. soldiers in America B. so many American soldiers were
C. many in America D. were so many American soldiers

situation, documents actual events, and features ordinary rather than professional actors. It could be described as a form of
artificial or “heightened” documentary. Although the genre has existed in some form or another since the early years of
television, the current explosion of popularity dates from around 2000.
Reality television covers a wide range of television programming formats, from game or quiz shows which resemble the
frantic, often demeaning program produced in Japan in the 1980s and 1990s (a modern example is Gaki no tsukai), to
surveillance - or voyeurism - focused productions such as Big Brother.
Critics say that the term “reality television” is somewhat of a misnomer and that such shows frequently portray a modifies
and highly influenced form of reality, with participants put in exotic location or abnormal situations, sometimes coached to
act in certain ways by off-screen handlers, and with events on screen manipulated through editing and other post-production
techniques.
Part of reality television’s appeal is due to its ability to place ordinary people in extraordinary situations. For example, on
the ABC show, The Bachelor, an eligible male dates a dozen women simultaneously, traveling on extraordinary dates to
scenic locales. Reality television also has the potential to turn its participants into national celebrities, outwardly in talent and
performance programs such as Pop Idol, though frequently Survivor and Big Brother participants also reach some degree of
celebrity.
Some commentators have said that the name “reality television” is an inaccurate description for several styles of program
included in the genre. In competition- based programs such as Big Brother and Survivor, and other special-living-
environment shows like The Real World, the producers design the format of the show and control the day-to-day activities
and the environment, creating a completely fabricated world in which the competition plays out. Producers specifically select
the participants, and use carefully designed scenarios, challenges, events, and settings to encourage particular behaviors and
conflicts. Mark Burnett, creator of Survivor and other reality shows, has agreed with this assessment, and avoids the word
“reality” to describe his shows; he has said, “I tell good stories. It really is not reality TV. It really is unscripted drama.”
Question 25. In the first line, the writer says “it is claimed” because ____.
A. they are agree with the statement B. everyone agrees with the statement
C. no one agrees with the statement D. they want to distance themselves from the statement
Question 26. Reality television has ____.
A. always been this popular B. been popular since before 2000
C. only been popular since 2000 D. been popular since approximately 2000
Question 27. Japan ____.
A. is the only one place to produce demeaning TV shows

each of the blanks.
All life is sound. We are constantly surrounded by sounds and noises (46) _____ by nature and everything in it. For
thousands of years man has been speaking and singing, and (47) ______ his wonderfully constructed ear, perceiving sounds
and noises, although they are but a small part of the inconceivable wealth of sounds filling the universe. Children everywhere
and without (48) _____are born with musical abilities with voices, and with hearing. The difference lies (49) _____in what
they do with these gifts. That (50) _____according to temperament upbringing nationality, and time. Nature itself is full of
sound, full of music. Musical sounds existed millions of years before there was a human ear to hear (51)_____the soft
bubbling of the water, the roll of thunder, the whistling and rustling of leaves in the wind and (52)_____knows how many
other audible manifestations of nature. Man was born (53_____a world of sound. Thunder filled him with fear and became a
symbol of supernatural (54) _____. In the roar of the wind he heard the voices of demons. Dwellers at the seashore (55)
_____the temper of the gods by the sound of the waves. Religious rites and music were inseparable at the dawn of humanity.
Question 35. A. found B. heard C. produced D. existing
Question 36. A. thanks to B. based on C. in spite of D. without
Question 37. A. exception B. doubt C. consideration D. preparation
Question 38. A. absolutely B. merely C. especially D. suddenly
Question 39. A. depends B. forms C. varies D. differentiates
Question 40. A. them B. it C. all D. from
Question 41. A. he B. someone C. who D. everyone
Question 42. A. with B. from C. in D. into
Question 43. A. disasters B. powers C. symbols D. existence
Question 44. A. terrified B. touched C. judged D. heard
Mark the letter a, b, c, or d on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
Question 45. It announced today that an enquiry would be held into the collapse of a high-rise apartment block in Kuala
Lumpur last week.
Question 46. Neither of the men arresting as terrorists would reveal information about his group.
Question 47. I strongly object the idea of students in the final year working part-time jobs.
Question 48. If they took their language lesson seriously, they would be able to communicate with the locals now.
Question 49. Everyone ought to know the basic steps that follow in case of an emergency.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is closest meaning to the underlined part in
each of the following questions.

Q - You like your food, don’t you?
A- I’m one of those people who only have to look at a doughnut and I immediately put on 2 pounds without even eating it.
I’ve always had a problem with my weight .it doesn’t bother me too much, although I get depressed when I’m very
overweight. I dieted once and I became so obsessed that I neatly made myself ill. But I’m happy with the way I am at the
moment. If you exercise at least three or four times a week and play tennis, then it’s no problem, but you have to keep at it. (
…)
Q - Do you think you will still be touring and making records in another ten year’s time?
A - I can’t keep touring and making records for the rest of my life- I’ve got to try something different now and then. One
thing I am interested in doing is writing a musical.
Q - So do you think we see you on stage in your town musical one day?
A - I doubt it. I’m not interested in going into a theatre and performing every night. You may find that strange but if you’re
on tour, you’re changing cities. I played at the Hammersmith Odeon once for 14 nights and by the end of it I was going
crazy. It was like going to the office. People who actually appear in plays and musical for two or three years have my greatest
sympathy and admiration. I never consider what I do as work.
Question 55. When Elton goes out, he ____.
A. is recognized by 99% of the population B. wears a disguise
C. gets annoyed if he is recognized D. accepts he will probably be recognized
Question 56. The phrase ‘a recluse’ is closest in meaning to ____.
A. an ordinary person B. a celebrity
C. a person who avoids other people D. a person who gets frustrated with his popularity
Question 57. How has frame changed Elton John?
A. He has become very bossy B. He doesn’t like to be on his own
C. He feels more confident D. He has become shy
Question 58. The phrase ‘a loner’ is closest in meaning to ____.
A. a person who likes being alone
B. a bossy person
C. a person who is unhappy without other people around
D. an only child in the family
Question 59. What does Elton John say about his weight?
A. He is obsessed with his weight B. He gets depressed when he diets

 If
Question 68. “Would you like to have a drink with me?”
 He invited me
Question 69. He tried to escape but the police stopped him.
 The police prevented
Part 2: In about 120 words, write a paragraph about YOUR HOBBY.
SAMPLE 1: I consider playing guitar my favorite hobby because of many reasons. First, I love getting the chances to play
for audience. There is no greater feeling than playing music for people who want to listen. It is very interesting to see people
enjoy my performance. Second, I love learning about new ways that can be done to make the songs unique. For example, I
recently get to know the way to pull off a string to make a note sound without picking the string. There are many techniques
to make playing the guitar interesting and fun. Third, I love to learn songs by my favorite bands. That way, I can play along
with a song instead of just singing alone. Moreover, I get to improve my listening and playing skill by copying what I hear.
In conclusion, playing for audience, learning new techniques and learning songs make playing the guitar my favorite hobby.
SAMPLE 2: In my free time, I like reading a wide variety of books. First of all, through reading books I can broaden my
knowledge more all over the world. For examples, I read books, I can learn different cultures in many countries such as
Japan, China, Singapore, and so on. Second, I will be able to improve some necessary skills like skimming, scanning,
guessing the meaning of the words from context by reading several foreign books to apply well in my practice at school as
well as in my exam. The most important reason is that I find it more convenient and easier to carry a book with me to any
places and at any time. For instance , when I take a break at school , I can bring my books and enjoy reading them in the
schoolyard with my friends or by myself .To sum up , with this passion I feel very relaxed and enjoyable in my life as well
as I recommend that everyone should have this hobby in their free time
THE END

SAMPLE TEST 02
***
Read the following passage and choose the correct word for each of the blanks.
Interpreting the feelings of other people is not always easy, as we all know, and we (1) _______as much on what they
seem to be telling us, as on the actual words they say. Facial (2) _______and tone of voice are obvious ways of showing our
(3) _______to something, and it may well be that we unconsciously express views that we are trying to hide. The art of being
( 4) _______lies in picking up these signals, realizing what the other person is trying to say, and acting so that they are not

B. tactful
C. successful
D. humble
Question 5:
A. reluctant
B. used
C. hesitant
D. tending
Question 6:
A. psychological
B. relevant
C. physical
D. similar
Question 7:
A. faithful
B. regular
C. reliable
D. predictable
Question 8:
A. infringement
B. invasion
C. interference
D. intrusion
Question 9:
A. reticent
B. classified
C. confidential
D. secretive
Question 10:
A. conscientious

th
century, the geography of the globe still _______________ a mystery.
A. maintained B. continued C. was D. remained
Question 23. Although he hadn't spoken French for many years, he picked it _______ again after a few weeks.
A. over B. on C. through D. up
15 Sample Tests For The National Examination Edited By: Ms. Dung Purple
Nguyen Trung Truc High School - School year: 2014-2015
Page 7
Question 24. The police carried out a _______ search for the missing diplomat.
A. through B. thorough C. throughout D. thoughtful
Question 25. More people speak English than any other language, but non-native speakers now ______ native speakers by
three to one.
A. outnumber B. overtake C. pass D. dominate
Question 26. The government should take _______ to reduce the current high unemployment rate.
A. steps B. measures C. changes D. solutions
Question 27. The chairman requested that _______.
A. the members study the problem carefully B. with more carefulness the problem could be studied
C. the problem was more carefully studied D. the members studied more carefully the problem
Question 28. - "What do you think of football?" - "___________"
A. Of course, football players are excellent B. It's none of my business.
C. Well, it's beyond my expectation D. I am crazy about it.
Question 29. His change of job has ____________ him with a new challenge in life.
A. led B. initiated C. presented D. introduced
Choose one word whose main stress pattern is different from the others'.
Question 30: A. collective B. climatic C. abundant D. regional
Question 31: A. emergency B. concentration C. humanity D. phenomenon
Question 32: A. continent B. government C. reference D. museum
Mark the letter a, b, c, or d on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined sound that is pronounced differently from the
rest
Question 33. A. helicopter B. hospital C. hour D. husband

15 Sample Tests For The National Examination Edited By: Ms. Dung Purple
Nguyen Trung Truc High School - School year: 2014-2015
Page 8
B. takes effect only when a candidate is well -dressed
C. stands out as the worst judgmental error
D. helps the interviewer’s capability to judge real ability
Question 39. The word “hindrance” in line 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. assistance B. encouragement C. procedure D. interference
Question 40. According to the passage the first impression _______.
A. can easily be altered B. is unrelated to the interviewer’s prejudices
C. is the one that stays with the interviewer D. has been repeatedly demonstrated to the applicant
Question 41. The word “skews” in line 14 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. improves B. opposes C. biases D. distinguishes
Question 42. The author mentions all of the following reasons why interviewing is not an accurate way to predict candidate
suitability EXCEPT the _______.
A. primacy effect B. halo effect C. contrast effect D. cognitive effect
Question 43. The word “confirm” in line 11 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. verify B. misrepresent C. recollect D. conclude
Question 44. The paragraphs following the passage most likely discuss which of the following?
A. More information on the kinds of judgmental effects
B. Other reasons for misjudgments of applicants
C. Other selection procedures included in interviewing
D. More information on cognitive ability tests
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
Question 45. The Green Garden Restaurant uses fresh produce on their dishes, much of which the owners grow in their own
garden.
Question 46. There are many different ways of comparing the economy of one nation with those of another.
Question 47. Going from air condition room to a natural environment can cause respiratory illness.
Question 48. A basic knowledge of social studies, such as history and geography, are considered a basic part of the
education of every child.

heavenly bodies is added together to bring the water high on the beaches, to send its surf upward against the sea cliffs, and to
draw a high tide into the harbors. Twice each month, at the quarters of the Moon, when the Sun, Moon, and Earth lie at the
apexes of a triangular configuration and the pull of the Sun and Moon are opposed, the moderate tidal movements called
neap tides occur. Then the difference between high and low water is less than at any other time during the month.
Question 55: Neap tides occur when ____.
A. the Moon is full
B. waves created by the wind combine with the Moon’s gravitational attraction
C. the Sun counteracts the Moon’s gravitational attraction
D. the Moon is farthest from the Sun
Question 56: The word felt in line 3 is closest in meaning to____.
A. detected B. dropped C. explored D. based
Question 57: It can be inferred from the passage that the most important factor in determining how much gravitational effect
one object in space has on the tides is
A. temperature B. density C. size D. distance
Question 58: What is the cause of the spring tides?
A. The Earth’s movement around the Sun
B. The triangular arrangement of the Earth, Sun, and Moon
C. Seasonal changes in the weather
D. The gravitational pull of the Sun and the Moon when nearly in line with the Earth
Question 59: The word correspondingly in line 8 is closest in meaning to____.
A. similarly B. interestingly C. unusually D. unpredictably
Question 60: What is the main point of the first paragraph?
A. Despite the strength of the wind, it only moves surface water
B. The tides are the most powerful force to affect the movement of ocean water
C. Deep ocean water is seldom affected by forces that move water
D. The waves created by ocean currents are very large
Question 61: The words In reality in line 6 are closest in meaning to____.
A. characteristically B. similarly C. surprisingly D. actually
Question 62: Where in the passage does the author mention movements of ocean water other than those caused by tides?
A. Lines 1 – 4 B. Lines 7 - 9 C. Lines 11 - 14 D. Lines 9 - 11

A. aware B. informed C. acquainted D. knowledgeable
Question 3. That news came very fast. They’ll be surprised __________.
A. hearing B. to hearing C. at hearing D. to hear
Question 4. The sink in the locker room tends to _________.
A. flow B. overflow C. flow over D. over flowing
Question 5. – “We’ll have to hurry if we want to finish this project on time.” “_________ __”.
A. OK. But I’ll call you later. B. I’ll say we will!
C. I’m tired. I’ll go home early. D. What a wonderful idea!
Question 6. - “Excuse me. I’m trying to find the library.” “_____________”
A. Where’re your eyes? It’s in front of you. B. Look no further!
C. Find it yourself. I’m busy. D. Oh, nice to meet you.
Question 7. I haven’t had a ________ week. I seem to have done nothing at all.
A. extensive B. productive C. enthusiastic D. economic
Question 8. All the plans have been put _________ for the time being.
A. down B. up C. aside D. low
Question 9. We found some real _________ at the market.
A. prizes B. goods C. bargains D. items
Question 10. There was a ____________________ table in the kitchen.
A. beautiful large round wooden B. large beautiful round wooden
C. beautiful round large wooden D. golden large beautiful round
Question 11. It was _________________ that we spent the whole day at the beach.
A. so nice a weather B. such nice weather C. such nice a weather D. so a nice weather
Question 12. According to the conditions of my scholarship, after finishing my degree, ____.
A. my education will be employed by the university. B. employment will be given to me by the university.
C. the university will employ me. D. I will be employed by the university.
Question 13. Some teachers argue that students who ____using a calculator may forget how to do mental calculation.
A. are used to B. are used C. is D. were used to
Question 14. The football match tomorrow evening will be broadcasted _________ on TV and radio.
A. stimulatingly B. simultaneously C. jointly D. uniformly
Question 15. Don’t worry! He’ll do the job as ___________ as possible.

cerebral cortex contains roughly one billion synapses. These neurons communicate with one another by means of long
protoplasmic fibers called axons, which carry trains of signal pulses called action potentials to distant parts of the brain or
body and target them to specific recipient cells.
The brain controls the other organ systems of the body, either by activating muscles or by causing secretion of
chemicals such as hormones and neurotransmitters. This centralized control allows rapid and coordinated responses to
changes in the environment. Some basic types of responsiveness are possible without a brain: even single-celled organisms
may be capable of extracting information from the environment and acting in response to it. Sponges, which lack a central
nervous system, are capable of coordinated body contractions and even locomotion. In vertebrates, the spinal cord by itself
contains neural circuitry capable of generating reflex responses as well as simple motor patterns such as swimming or
walking. However, sophisticated control of behavior on the basis of complex sensory input requires the information-
integrating capabilities of a centralized brain.
Despite rapid scientific progress, much about how brains work remains a mystery. The operations of individual
neurons and synapses are now understood in considerable detail, but the way they cooperate in ensembles of thousands or
millions has been very difficult to decipher. Methods of observation such as EEG recording and functional brain imaging tell
us that brain operations are highly organized, while single unit recording can resolve the activity of single neurons, but how
individual cells give rise to complex operations is unknown.
Question 25. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Brain – human’s most complex part of the body.
B. Brain’s main function.
C. An overview of the most complex part of the body – Brain.
D. The brain’s complex operation.
Question 26. It can be inferred from the passage that______.
A. Jellyfish and starfish do not have brain.
B. The number of neurons in the cortex is about 15 – 33 billion, irrespective of age and gender.
C. The sponge has brain but not nervous system.
D. Neurons communicate with one another by targeting themselves to specific recipient cells.
Question 27. The word “linked” in the 2
nd
paragraph could be best replaced by______.
A. chained B. connected C. bundled D. interfered

A. informative B. complicating C. romantic D. thrilling
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best option for each of
the blanks.
Any change in one part of an ecosystem can cause changes in other parts. Drought, storms, and fires can change
ecosystems. Some changes (35) _________the ecosystem. If there is too little rainfall, plants will not have enough water to
live. If a kind of plant die (36) _______, the animals that (37) _________it may also die or move away. Some changes are
good for ecosystem. Some pine forests need (38) _________for the pine trees to reproduce. The seeds are sealed inside
pinecones. Heat from a forest fire melts the seal and lets the seeds (39) ______.
Polluting the air, soils, water can harm ecosystems. Building (40) _________on rivers for electric power and
irrigation can harm ecosystems (41) _________the rivers. Bulldozing wetlands and cutting down (42) _________destroy
ecosystems. Ecologists are working with companies and governments to find better ways of (43) _________fish, cutting
down trees, and building dams. They are looking for ways to get food, lumber, and other products for people (44)
_________causing harm to ecosystems.
Question 35. A. harm B. harmless C. harmful D. harms
Question 36. A. off B. away C. over D. forever
Question 37. A. fed with B. feed on C. fed up with D. feed
Question 38. A. flame B. fires C. blaze D. burning
Question 39. A. fly B. in C. go D. out
Question 40. A. moats B. ditches C. bridges D. dams
Question 41. A. on B. around C. over D. under
Question 42. A. hills B. jungles C. forests D. woods
Question 43. A. catching B. holding C. carrying D. taking
Question 44. A. avoid B. without C. not D. no
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underline part that needs correction.
Question 45. Isabella danced in her bare feet and wore loose-fitting clothing garments that allowed her freedom of
movement.
Question 46. Most fatty acids have been founded as essential components of lipid molecules.
Question 47. Antarctic blue whales can be 100 foot long and weigh more than any dinosaur that ever lived.
Question 48. In seeking its representative writers, twentieth-century America seems to be searching for someone who
chronicle the chaos and lack of direction reflected in some contemporary values.

from the plant showed radioactive cesium levels high enough to cause concern. Food grown in the area was banned from
sale. It was suggested that worldwide measurements of iodine-131 and caesium-137 indicate that the releases from
Fukushima are of the same order of magnitude as the releases of those isotopes from the Chernobyl disaster in 1986; Tokyo
officials temporarily recommended that tap water should not be used to prepare food for infants. Plutonium contamination
has been detected in the soil at two sites in the plant. Two workers hospitalized as a precaution on 25 March had been
exposed to between 2000 and 6000 mSv of radiation at their ankles when standing in water in unit 3.
Question 50. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Japanese natural disaster – the nuclear power accident.
B. Fukushima I nuclear accident – the largest nuclear power of all time.
C. The nuclear power accident – Japanese catastrophe.
D. The Fukushima I Nuclear Power Plant.
Question 51. It can be inferred from the passage that_____.
A. The Fukushima I Nuclear Power Plant is the world’s largest nuclear accident.
B. The accident happened in the early part of the year 2011.
C. Chernobyl is the world’s largest and most complex nuclear accident.
D. Reactor doesn’t involve in the accident.
Question 52. The word “ongoing” in the passage is closest in meaning to _____.
A. old-fashioned B. onslaught C. continuous D. disastrous
Question 53. The word “withstand” in the second paragraph is could be best replaced by_____.
A. stand B. stand together C. wrestle D. strike
Question 54. All of the following are mentioned in the passage EXCEPT_____.
A. The cause of the accident is the Tōhoku earthquake and tsunami.
B. The earthquake causes a great damage to Japan and the neighboring country.
C. The tsunami struck the country after the earthquake had occurred approximately an hour.
D. The reactor was barred from external assistance because of the flooding and earthquake damage.
Question 55. According to the passage, which of the followings is NOT true?
A. The plant suffered a 14-metre seawall.
B. The highest wave was 46 ft in height.
C. The reactor 5 and 6 started overheating though they were in cold shutdown for maintenance.
D. The flood with water containing radioactivity made it impossible for the machinery to be repaired.

B. Your bio data and special qualities D. what you have earned through study
Question 64. The activists were accused of contaminating the minds of our young people.
A. providing healthy ideas B. harming
C. nurturing D. keeping in the dark
WRITING
Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it.
Question 65. It won’t be possible for me to come back home this week because I’m too busy.
- I’m afraid……………………………………………………………………
Question 66. Mr. Jones remembered the date, and so did his wife.
- Mr. Jones didn’t………………………………………………………………
Question 67. The lesson was so boring that Lan fell asleep.
- It……………………………………………………………………………
Question 68. Peter is my close friend. His father is a policeman.
- Peter, ………………………………………………………………
Question 69. “Would you like to come to my party tomorrow?” Jean invited me.
- Jean……………………………………………………………………….
Part 2: In about 120 words, write a paragraph about the advantages of computers.
THE END

SAMPLE TEST 04
***
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions, questions from 1-2
Question 1. A. taught B. laughter C. naughty D. slaughter
Question 2. A. dealt B. dreamt C. heal D. jealous
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of
the main stress in each of the following questions, questions from 3 - 5
Question 3. A. sandal B. canal C. rental D. vandal
Question 4. A. memorial B. desirable C. reliable D. admirable
Question 5. A. successive B. apprentice C. attendance D. atmosphere

Question 18. Although the exam was difficult, _____ the students passed it.
A. most of B. none of C. a few D. a lot
Question 19. - “You really have a beautiful blouse, Mary. I have never seen such a perfect thing on you” - “ ______”
A. Good idea. Thanks for the news. B. Thanks, Tom. That’s a nice compliment
C. Well, that's very surprising! D. Yes, it's our pleasure.
Question 20. By _____ the household chores, he can help his mother after going home from school.
A. ordering B. doing C. having D. making
Question 21. The youths nowadays have many things to do in their _____ time.
A. leisure B. entertainment C. fun D. amusement
Question 22. I was not _________ to go to parties in the evening until I reached the age of eighteen.
A. permitted B. permission C. permitting D. permit
Question 23. Working hours will fall to under 35 hours a week, _____?
A. will they B. won't they C. won't it D. will it
Question 24. This factory produced ______ motorbikes in 2008 as in the year 2006.
A. twice as many B. as twice as many C. as twice many D. as many as twice
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction, questions 26-35
Question 25. The salad tasted so well that my brother returned to the salad bar for another helping.
Question 26. A mosquito is filled with blood is carrying twice its own weight.
Question 27. Joseph Ford, the politician who was kidnapped last week as he was driving for his office, was released
unharmed.
Question 28. Ozone layer acts as an umbrella against most of the Sun’s dangerous rays.
Question 29. Neither Jane nor Sarah explained me why they were so late.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined part in each of the following questions, questions 36 - 37
15 Sample Tests For The National Examination Edited By: Ms. Dung Purple
Nguyen Trung Truc High School - School year: 2014-2015
Page 16
Question 30. The International Organizations are going to be in a temporary way in the country.
A. permanent B. guess C. complicated C. soak
Question 31. My little daughter would spend an inordinate amount of time in the shop, deciding exactly which four comics

Question 36. The word “predecessors” in the passage refers to _____
A. those who came before B. those who provided help
C. those who published their work D. those who agreed with the ideas
Question 37. The phrase “prior to” in the passage could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. before B. after C. with D. simultaneously
Question 38. Which of the following scientists established that the natural state of a body was a state of rest?
A. Galileo B. Kepler C. Aristotle D. Newton
Question 39. The word “it” in line 6 refers to _____
A. rest B. body C. state D. motion
Question 40. Who was the first scientist to correctly describe the behavior of falling objects?
A. Aristotle B. Newton C. Kepler D. Galileo
Question 41. According to Huygens, when was acceleration required?
A. For either a change in direction or a change in speed B. Only for a change in speed
C. Only for a change in direction D. Neither for a change in direction nor for a change in speed
Question 42. According to this passage, Newton based his laws primarily upon the work of _____
A. Galileo and Copernicus B. Ptolemy and Copernicus
C. Huygens and Kepler D. Galileo and Kepler
Question 43. The word “momentum” in the passage is closest in meaning to _____
A. weight B. speed C. shape D. size
15 Sample Tests For The National Examination Edited By: Ms. Dung Purple
Nguyen Trung Truc High School - School year: 2014-2015
Page 17
Question 44. Which of the following describes Inertia or the principles of bodies at rest?
A. Newton’s first law B. Newton’s third law C. Newton’s law of motion D. Newton’s law of dynamics
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 51 - 60.
In addition to the great ridges and volcanic chains, the oceans conceal another form of undersea mountains: the
strange guyot, or flat-topped seamount. No marine geologist even suspected the existence of these isolated mountains until
they were discovered by geologist Harry H. Hess in 1946. He was serving at the time as naval officer on a ship equipped with
a fathometer. Hess named these truncated peaks for the nineteenth-century Swiss-born geologist Arnold Guyot, who had

A. less than 600 feet. B. between 600 and 3,200 feet.
C. between 3,200 and 6,500 feet D. more than 8,200 feet
Question 52. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “rubble” in the passage?
A. Fragments B. Mixture C. Columns D. Core
Question 53. According to the passage, which of the following two processes were involved in the submersion of guyots?
A. Erosion and volcanic activity.
B. The sinking of the sea floor and the rising of sea level.
C. Mountain building and the action of ocean currents
D. High tides and earthquakes
Question 54. According to the passage, when did sea level significantly rise?
A. In 1946 B. In the nineteenth century
C. From 8,000 to 11,000 years D. 80 million years ago
15 Sample Tests For The National Examination Edited By: Ms. Dung Purple
Nguyen Trung Truc High School - School year: 2014-2015
Page 18
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 55 -64.
Vietnamese generally shake hands when greeting and parting. Using both hands shows respect as does a (55) _____
bow of the head. In rural areas, elderly people do not extend their hand, they are greeted with a bow. Women are more (56)
_____ to bow the head than to shake hands. Vietnamese names begin with the family name and are (57) _____ by a given
name. For example, in the name Nguyen Van Due, Nguyen is the family name. People address (58) _____ by their given
names, but add a title that indicates their perceived (59) _______ to the other person. These titles are family related rather
than professional. Among colleagues, for example, the (60) _____ of the two might combine the given name with the title of
Anh ("Older Brother"). A (n) (61) _____ greeting combined with the given name and title is Xin chao (“Hello”). Classifiers
for gender and familiarity are also combined with the greeting. In formal meetings, business cards are sometimes (62) _____
on greeting.
Vietnamese people have a strong (63) _____ of hospitality and feel embarrassed if they cannot show their guests full
respect by preparing for their arrival. Therefore, it is (64) _____ to visit someone without having been invited. Gifts are not
required, but are appreciated. Flowers, incense, or tea may be proper gifts for the hosts. Hosts also appreciate a small gift for
their children or elderly parents.

C. lightly
C. probable
C. followed
C. the other one
C. relations
C. youngest
C. fundamentally
C. reversed
C. sensitivity
C. inappropriate
D. lighted
D. likely
D. taken
D. one another
D. relatives
D. young
D. elementary
D. exchanged
D. sensible
D. inexact
WRITING:
Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it
65. She knows more about it than I do.
 I don’t
66. Although he had a good salary, he was unhappy in his job.
 In spite
67. He prefers golf to tennis.
 He’d rather
68. The garden still needs digging.
 The garden hasn’t

A. had never seen B. has never seen C. never sees D. never had seen
Question 12. He thought the talk was fascinating. His friend, _______, fell asleep halfway through it.
A. although B. nevertheless C. however D. B or C
Question 13. Have you really got no money_______the fact that you've had a part-time job this term?
A. although B. in spite of C. because of D. in case
Question 14. The doctor gave the patient_________examination to discover the cause of his collapse.
A. a thorough B. a whole C. an exact D. a universal
Question 15. Her book is about the_______between women and men.
A. unequality B. disequality C. inequality D. non-equality
Question 16. This section of the car park is_______for visitors.
A. private B. reserved C. given D. put
Question 17. The role of women in society has been greatly _______in the last few years.
A. overlooked B. overtaken C. overcome D. overcast
Question 18. Only 40 % of 5-year-olds have_______ to pre-school children.
A. access B. approach C. denial D. recognition
Question 19. He has been_______from running a political office for five years.
A. missed B. avoided C. made D. barred
Question 20. Delegates will meet with_______from industry and the government.
A. represented B. representative C. representatives D. representers
Question 21. Sports drinks have caught _______ as consumers have become more health- conscious.
A. in B. at C. out D. on
Question 22. He was _________ teacher!
A. how good a B. so good a C. so a good D. what a good
Question 23. It's a program that gives some insight into the _______ life of the Victorians.
A. household B. inner C. house D. domestic
Question 24. _______having a good salary, he also has a private income.
A. What's more B. Furthermore C. Apart from D. From
Question 25. Sue: “ How long is the seminar ?” Kim: “ knowledge, it takes about three hours.”
A. To my best B. To the best of my C. In my best of D. In my best
Question 26. Not until______ home ________ that he had taken someone else's bike.

Question 36. A. likely B. willing C. going D. happened
Question 37. A. Luckily B. Consequently C. However D. Unfortunately
Question 38. A. that B. what C. which D. it
Question 39. A. change B. exchange C. transform D. transit
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 40 to 49.

In this era of increased global warming and diminishing fossil fuel supplies, we must begin to put a greater priority on
harnessing alternative energy sources. Fortunately, there are a number of readily available, renewable resources that are both
cost- effective and earth – friendly. Two such resources are solar power and geothermal power.
Solar energy, which reaches the earth through sunlight, is so abundant that it could meet the needs of worldwide energy
consumption 6,000 times over. And solar energy is easily harnessed through the use of photovoltaic cells that convert
sunlight to electricity. In the US alone, more than 100, 000 homes are equipped with solar electric systems in the form of
solar panels or solar roof tiles. And in other parts of the world, including many developing countries, the use of solar system
is growing steadily.
Another alternative energy source, which is abundant in specific geographical areas, is geothermal power, which creates
energy by tapping heat from below the surface of the earth. Hot water and steam that are trapped in underground pools are
pumped to the surface and used to run a generator, which is produces electricity. Geothermal energy is
50, 000 times more abundant than the entire known supply of fossil fuel resources. And as with solar power, the technology
needed to utilize geothermal energy is fairly simple. A prime example of effective geothermal use in Iceland, a region of high
geothermal activity where over 80 percent of private homes are heated by geothermal power.
Solar and geothermal energy are just two of promising renewable alternatives to conventional energy sources. The time is
long overdue to invest in the development and use of alternative energy on global scale.
Question 40. What is the main topic of this passage ?
A. The benefits of solar and wind power over conventional energy sources.
B. How energy resources are tapped from nature.
C. Two types of alternative energy sources that should be further utilized.
D. Examples of the use of energy sources worldwide.
Question 41. According to the passage, why should we consider using alternative energy sources ?
A. Because fossil fuels are no longer available.

D. It is 80 times more effective than traditional forms of energy.
Question 48. What does the author imply about alternative energy sources ?
A. Many different types of alternative energy sources exist.
B. Most alternative energy sources are too impractical for private use.
C. Alternative energy is too expensive for developing countries to produce.
D. Solar and geothermal energy are the effective forms of alternative power
Question 49. What best describes the author’s purpose in writing the passage ?
A. To warn people about the hazards of fossil fuel use.
B. To describe the advantages and disadvantages of alternative energy use.
C. To convince people of the benefits of developing alternative energy sources.
D. To outline the problems and solutions connected with global warming.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 50 to59.
Fish that live on the sea bottom benefit by being flat and hugging the contours. There are two very different types of
flatfish and they have evolved in very separate ways. The skates and rays, relatives of the sharks, have become flat in what
might be called the obvious way. Their bodies have grown out sideways to form great “wings”. They look as though they
have been flattened but have remained symmetrical and “ the right way up”. Conversely, fish such as plaice, sole, and
halibut have become flat in a different way. There are bony fish which have a marked tendency to be flattened in a vertical
direction; they are much “ taller” than they are wide. They use their whole, vertically flattened bodies as swimming surfaces,
which undulate through the water as they move. Therefore, when their ancestors migrated to the seabed, they lay on one side
than on their bellies- However, this raises the problem that one eye was always looking down into the sand and was
effectively useless – In evolution this problem was solved by the lower eye “ moving” around the other side. We see this
process of moving around enacted in the development of every young bony flatfish. It starts life swimming near the surface,
and is symmetrical and vertically flattened , but then the skull starts to grow in a strange asymmetrical twisted fashion, so
that one eye, for instance the left, moves over the top of the head upwards, an old Picasso- like vision. Incidentally, some
species of 20 flatfish settle on the right side, others on the left, and others on either side.
Question 50. The passage is mainly concerned with:
A. symmetrical flatfish B. bony flatfish C. evolution of flatfish D. different types of flatfish
Question 51. The phrase “ hugging the contours” in the line 1 means:
15 Sample Tests For The National Examination Edited By: Ms. Dung Purple

62. I was horrified to see the child about to cross the expressway alone.
A. ashamed B. shocked C. nervous D. surprised
63. The secretary left after weeks of harassment by the manager of her department.
A. teasing B. irritation C. absence D. goading
64. It is very discourteous to intrude during someone's conversation.
A. find fault B. disagree C. be in the way D. leave quickly
WRITING:
Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it
65. It isn’t necessary to finish the work today.
 You don’t
66. Sally finally managed to get a job.
 Sally finally succeeded
67. That’s the last time I go to that restaurant.
 I certainly
68. “I advised you to take a holiday” The doctor said.
 “You’d
69. If you don’t rest your self you really will be ill.
 Unless
Part 2: What is your favorite place to visit on weekends? Describe it and explain why it is your favorite place to go.
THE END

SAMPLE TEST 06
***
15 Sample Tests For The National Examination Edited By: Ms. Dung Purple
Nguyen Trung Truc High School - School year: 2014-2015
Page 23
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic part in each of
the following questions.
Question 1: Henry has found a temporary job in a factory.
A. eternal B. genuine C. permanent D. satisfactory

A. Studying more B. Had he studied more C. If he studied more D. If he were studying more
Question 16: Mark: -“_______” Helen: “Oh, thank you. I just got it yesterday.”
A. What a beautiful dress you have on! B. How a beautiful dress you’re wearing!
C. You’ve just bought this beautiful dress, haven’t you? D. When have you got this beautiful
dress?
Question 17: Fire safety in family houses, _______ most fire deaths occur, is difficult.
A. how B. when C. why D. where
Question 18: _______ of the financial crisis, all they could do was hold on and hope that things would improve.
A. In the end B. At the height C. On the top D. At the bottom
Question 19: When I got my case back, it had been damaged _______ repair.
A. over B. further C. above D. beyond
Question 20: We intend to _______ with the old system as soon as we have developed a better one.
A. do up B. do in C. do away D. do down
Question 21: _______ that she burst into tears.
A. So angry was she B. Such her anger C. She was so anger D. Her anger was so
Question 22: We regret to tell you that the materials you ordered are _______.
15 Sample Tests For The National Examination Edited By: Ms. Dung Purple
Nguyen Trung Truc High School - School year: 2014-2015
Page 24
A. out of reach B. out of practice C. out of stock D. out of work
Question 23: Do you remember Daisy? I ran _______ her at the Fair yesterday.
A. by B. down C. across D. in
Question 24: – “I think we should recycle these bags. It will help protect the environment. – “_______”
A. Never mind B. I can’t agree with you more C. You can say that again D. It’s
rubbish. We shouldn’t use it.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correcting.
Question 25: Children’s games, which are amusements (A) involve more than one individual, (B) appear to be (C)
culturally (D) universal.
Question 26: When I (A) came back I (B) realized that (C) my camera (D) had been disappeared.
Question 27: If (A) either of you (B) take a vacation now, we (C) won’t be able (D) to finish this work.

Newspaper syndication played a major role in spreading the popularity of comic strips throughout the country. Though
weekly colored comics came first, daily black-and-white strips were not far behind. The first appeared in the Chicago
American in 1904. It was followed by many imitators, and by 1915 black-and-white comic strips had become a staple of
daily newspapers around the country.
Question 35: In what order does the author discuss various comic strips in the passage?
A. In the order in which they were created.
B. From most popular to least popular.
C. According to the newspaper in which they appeared.
D. In alphabetical order by title.
Question 36: According to the passage, the “Yellow Kid” was the first comic strip to do all of the following EXCEPT
_______.
A. feature the same character in each episode B. include dialogue inside a balloon
15 Sample Tests For The National Examination Edited By: Ms. Dung Purple
Nguyen Trung Truc High School - School year: 2014-2015
Page 25
C. appear in a Chicago newspaper D. characterize city life in a humorous way
Question 37: The word “prototype” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. model B. story C. humor D. drawing
Question 38: The word “staple” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. new version B. huge success C. regular feature D. popular edition
Question 39: The word “incorporate” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. combine B. mention C. create D. affect
Question 40: Why does the author mention Joseph Pulitzer and William Randolph Hearst?
A. Their comic strips are still published today. B. They owned major competitive newspapers.
C. They established New York’s first newspaper. D. They published comic strips about the newspaper war.
Question 41: The word “it” refers to _______.
A. balloon B. farce C. dialogue D. the “Yellow Kid”
Question 42: The passage suggests that comic strips were popular for which of the following reasons?
A. Readers enjoyed the unusual drawings. B. They were about real-life situations.
C. Readers could identify with the characters. D. They provided a break from serious news stories.

Question 53: A. way B. truth C. opposite D. fact
Question 54: A. whose B. that C. with D. as
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions.
Butterflies are among the most extensively studied insects, an estimated 90 percent of the world's species have
scientific names. As a consequence, they are, perhaps, the best group of insects for examining patterns of terrestrial biotic