ĐỀ THI THỬ KÌ THI THPT QG NĂM 2016
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH - ĐỀ 1
Thời gian: 90 phút
Mark the letter a, b, c, or d on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
01. The criminal was sentenced to death because of ____ of his crime.
A. the severity
B. the complexity
C. a punishment
D. the importance
02. The discovery was a major ____ for research workers
A. breakthrough
B. breakdown
C. break-in
D. breakout
03. “Would you like me to get a taxi?”
- “____.”
A. That would be delightful. Thanks
B. Well, let’s see.
C. Yes, please, if it’s no bother
D. Yes, I see.
04. You have a good feeling about yourself and____ when you volunteer.
A. others
B. other
C. the other
D. the others
05. If it ____ their encouragement, he could have given it up.
A. had been for
B. hadn’t been
C. hadn’t been for
D. wouldn’t have been for
06. By the end of this month I____ for this company for two years.

B. change
C. differ
D. fluctuate
13. John____ knowledge from many of his life experiences in his work.
A. approved
B. applied
C. appreciated
D. accomplished
14. As it was getting late, the boys decided to____ the campfire and crept into their sleeping bags.
A. put up
B. put off
C. put out
D. put on
15. The general public____ a large number of computers now, because prices are beginning to decrease.
A. must buy
B. must be buying
C. must have bought
D. must bought
16. I have to assure myself that I____ the best possible decision.
A. have leapt
B. have made
C. have done
D. have reached
17. “Sorry, I’m late, Mike.”
- “____.”
A. Well, it’s worth a try B. Not on my account
C. No, I wouldn’t mind at all D. That’s all right
18. Tony often watches TV after his parents____ to bed.
A. had gone
B. have gone

Read the following passage and mark the letter a, b, c, or d on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions.
REALITY TELEVISION
Reality television is genre of television programming which, it is claimed, presents unscripted dramatic or humorous
situation, documents actual events, and features ordinary rather than professional actors. It could be described as a form of


artificial or “heightened” documentary. Although the genre has existed in some form or another since the early years of
television, the current explosion of popularity dates from around 2000.
Reality television covers a wide range of television programming formats, from game or quiz shows which resemble
the frantic, often demeaning program produced in Japan in the 1980s and 1990s (a modern example is Gaki no tsukai), to
surveillance - or voyeurism - focused productions such as Big Brother.
Critics say that the term “reality television” is somewhat of a misnomer and that such shows frequently portray a
modifies and highly influenced form of reality, with participants put in exotic location or abnormal situations, sometimes
coached to act in certain ways by off-screen handlers, and with events on screen manipulated through editing and other postproduction techniques.
Part of reality television’s appeal is due to its ability to place ordinary people in extraordinary situations. For example,
on the ABC show, The Bachelor, an eligible male dates a dozen women simultaneously, traveling on extraordinary dates to
scenic locales. Reality television also has the potential to turn its participants into national celebrities, outwardly in talent and
performance programs such as Pop Idol, though frequently Survivor and Big Brother participants also reach some degree of
celebrity.
Some commentators have said that the name “reality television” is an inaccurate description for several styles of
program included in the genre. In competition- based programs such as Big Brother and Survivor, and other special-livingenvironment shows like The Real World, the producers design the format of the show and control the day-to-day activities and
the environment, creating a completely fabricated world in which the competition plays out. Producers specifically select the
participants, and use carefully designed scenarios, challenges, events, and settings to encourage particular behaviors and
conflicts. Mark Burnett, creator of Survivor and other reality shows, has agreed with this assessment, and avoids the word
“reality” to describe his shows; he has said, “I tell good stories. It really is not reality TV. It really is unscripted drama.”
25. In the first line, the writer says “it is claimed” because ____.
A. they are agree with the statement
B. everyone agrees with the statement
C. no one agrees with the statement

32. Producers choose the participants ____.
A. on the ground of talent
B. only for special-living- environment shows
C. to create conflict among other things
D. to make a fabricated world
33. Paul Burnett ____.
A. was a-participant on Survivor
B. is a critic of reality TV
C. thinks the term “reality television” is inaccurate
D. writes the script for Survivor
34. Shows like Survivor ____.
A. are definitely reality TV
B. are scripted
C. have good narratives
D. are theatre
Read the following passage and mark the letter a, b, c, or d on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word(s) for each of
the blanks.
All life is sound. We are constantly surrounded by sounds and noises (46)_produced_ by nature and everything in it.
For thousands of years man has been speaking and singing, and (47)_thanks to_ his wonderfully constructed ear, perceiving
sounds and noises, although they are but a small part of the inconceivable wealth of sounds filling the universe. Children
everywhere and without (48)_exception_ are born with musical abilities with voices, and with hearing. The difference lies
(49)_merely_ in what they do with these gifts. That (50)_varies_ according to temperament upbringing nationality, and time.
Nature itself is full of sound, full of music. Musical sounds existed millions of years before there was a human ear to hear
(51)_them_ the soft bubbling of the water, the roll of thunder, the whistling and rustling of leaves in the wind and (52)_who_
knows how many other audible manifestations of nature. Man was born (53)_into_ a world of sound. Thunder filled him with


fear and became a symbol of supernatural (54) powers__ . In the roar of the wind he heard the voices of demons. Dwellers at
the seashore (55)_judges_ the temper of the gods by the sound of the waves. Religious rites and music were inseparable at the
dawn of humanity.

C. in
D. into
43. A. disasters
B. powers
C. symbols
D. existence
44. A. terrified
B. touched
C. judged
D. heard
Mark the letter a, b, c, or d on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
45. It announced today that an enquiry would be held into the collapse of a high-rise apartment block in Kuala Lumpur last
week.
A
B
C
D
46. Neither of the men arresting as terrorists would reveal information about his group.
A
B
C
D
47. I strongly object the idea of students in the final year working part-time jobs.
A
B
C
D
48. If they took their language lesson seriously, they would be able to communicate with the locals now.
A
B

A. absolutely
B. Relavently
C. Almost
D. comparatively
Read the following passage and mark the letter a, b, c, or d on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions.
TALKING TO ELTON JOHN
Q - Do you miss doing the ordinary things in life?
A- I like plodding round the kitchen doing the things everybody else does. I love going to the supermarket to do the shopping.
I come back with far more stuff than I need. When I am on holiday in St. Tropez, I love to get up at six in the morning to get
the fresh bread. So people often see me wheeling my trolley round the supermarkets in town.
Q - Do you mind being recognized?
A - I’ve tried going out in disguise, but in the end most people recognize me, Ninety- nine percent are very pleasant, very
polite. But it’s frustrating if you get out of bed on the wrong side- and you do some days- and someone asks you for an
autograph and they haven’t got a pen or a piece of paper. But I enjoy my popularity; I don’t see the point in being a recluse.
Q - You once said that you’re a bit of a loner.
A- Yeah, I always have been. By that I don’t mean that I’m alone. It’s just that I like to be my own boss all the time. Don’t
confuse that with being lonely because I’m not. I have lots of great friends around me. Being successful has given me the
confidence to do things I wouldn’t have had the courage to do otherwise. But I still retain that shyness when I first meet
people. I’m never going to get rid of that.
Q - You like your food, don’t you?
A- I’m one of those people who only has to look at a doughnut and I immediately put on 2 pounds without even eating it. I’ve
always had a problem with my weight .it doesn’t bother me too much, although I get depressed when I’m very overweight. I
dieted once and I became so obsessed that I neatly made myself ill. But I’m happy with the way I am at the moment. If you
exercise at least three or four times a week and play tennis, then it’s no problem, but you have to keep at it. ( …)
Q - Do you think you will still be touring and making records in another ten year’s time?


A - I can’t keep touring and making records for the rest of my life- I’ve got to try something different now and then. One thing
I am interested in doing is writing a musical.

A. his playing at the theatre for 14 nights
B. his going crazy after the performance
C. his going to the office
D. the Hammersmith Odeon
61. What does the last paragraph tell us about his attitude to work?
A. He loves doing the same thing day after day
B. He hates any sort of job which means following a routine and doing the same thing day after day.
C. He loves playing at the theatre
D. He admires people who work hard.
62. Which of the following is not true about Elton John?
A. He loves doing the shopping in supermarkets
B. He prefers going out in disguise to avoid people
C. He has a lot of friends
D. Although he’s always had a problem with his weight, he doesn’t care much about it.
63. All of the following suggest that Elton John is basically happy with himself and his lifestyle EXCEPT ____.
A. He enjoys his popularity
B. He is happy with the way he is at the moment
C. He never considers what he does as work
D. He’s always been a loner.
64. What is his future ambition?
A. to appear in a play or musical
B. to break with his present routine
C. to do a word tour
D. to play at the Hammersmith Odeon
WRITING
Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it.
65. Peter was given the first prize. He felt so happy.

 Having _______________________________________________________________________________
66. He will not come here if his mother doesn’t allow him.

Đáp án
A
A
C
A
C
B
B
C
D
C
D
A
B
C
C
B

Question
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27

38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48

Đáp án
C
C
C
A
A
B
C
A
C
D
B
C
A
A
A
A


D
D
D
C
C
A
C
A
B
B
D
B


ĐỀ THI THỬ KÌ THI THPT QG NĂM 2016
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH - ĐỀ 2
Thời gian: 90 phút
Read the following passage and choose the correct word for each of the blanks.
Interpreting the feelings of other people is not always easy, as we all know, and we (1) __ _ as much on what they seem
to be telling us, as on the actual words they say. Facial (2) _ _ and tone of voice are obvious ways of showing our (3) _ _ to
something, and it may well be that we unconsciously express views that we are trying to hide. The art of being ( 4) __ _ lies in
picking up these signals, realizing what the other person is trying to say, and acting so that they are not embarrassed in any
way. For example, we may understand that they are in fact (5) __ __ to answer our question, and so we stop pressing them.
Body movements in general may also indicate feelings, and interviewers often pay particular attention to the way a candidate
for a job walks into the room and sits down. However it is not difficult to present the right kind of appearance while what many
employers want to know relates to the candidate’s character traits, and (6) __ __ stability. This raises the awkward question of
whether job candidates should be asked to complete psychological tests, and the further problem of whether such tests actually
produce (7) __ __ results. For many people, being asked to take part in such a test would be an objectionable (8) __ _ into their
private lives.
After all, a prospective employer would hardly ask a candidate to run a hundred meters, or expect his or her family doctor

C. physical
D. similar
Question 7:
A. faithful
B. regular
C. reliable
D. predictable
Question 8:
A. infringement
B. invasion
C. interference
D. intrusion
Question 9:
A. reticent
B. classified
C. confidential
D. secretive
Question 10:
A. conscientious
B. particular
C. laborious
D. thorough
Choose the answer that best fits the blank in each sentence or substitutes for the underlined words or phrases.
Question 11. The concert didn't come _______ our expectations.
A. up with
B. up against
C. up to
D. round
Question 12. Professor Alan insisted that every student _______ their report by Friday.
A. finish

B. Yes, I am so glad
C. No, thanks.
D. Yes, yes. You can sit here.
Question 19. - "Do you mind if I use your phone?" - ".__________________."
A. Yes, certainly
B. Sorry. I have no idea
C. Not at all. Help yourself
D. You can say that again
Question 20. Doing exercises may _______ you to pass the exam.
A. make it easier for
B. make easier for
C. be easy for
D. make easy that
Question 21. _________ Nam Cao is a realistic writer, but he still used a lot of romance in his stories.
A. On the contrary
B. On my part
C. On the whole
D. On the other hand
Question 22. In the early 16th century, the geography of the globe still _______________ a mystery.
A. maintained
B. continued
C. was
D. remained


Question 23. Although he hadn't spoken French for many years, he picked it _______ again after a few weeks.
A. over
B. on
C. through
D. up

Question 30: A. collective
B. climatic
C. abundant
Question 31: A. emergency
B. concentration
C. humanity
Question 32: A. continent
B. government
C. reference

D. regional
D. phenomenon
D. museum

Mark the letter a, b, c, or d on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined sound that is pronounced differently from the
rest
Question 33. A. helicopter
B. hospital
C. hour
D. husband
Question 34. A. money
B. notice
C. glance
D. thank
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer for each of the questions
Experiments have shown that in selecting personnel for a job, interviewing is at best a hindrance, and may even cause
harm. These studies have disclosed that the judgments of interviewers differ markedly and bear little or no relationship to the
adequacy of the job applicants. Of the many reasons why this should be the case, three in particular stand out.
The first reason is related to an error of judgment known as the halo effect. If a person has one noticeable good trait,
their other characteristics will be judged as better than they really are. Thus, an individual who dresses smartly and shows selfconfidence is likely to be judged capable of doing a job well regardless of his or her real ability.

A. assistance
B. encouragement
C. procedure
D. interference
Question 40. According to the passage the first impression _______.
A. can easily be altered
B. is unrelated to the interviewer’s prejudices


C. is the one that stays with the interviewer
D. has been repeatedly demonstrated to the applicant
Question 41. The word “skews” in line 14 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. improves
B. opposes
C. biases
D. distinguishes
Question 42. The author mentions all of the following reasons why interviewing is not an accurate way to predict candidate
suitability EXCEPT the _______.
A. primacy effect
B. halo effect
C. contrast effect
D. cognitive effect
Question 43. The word “confirm” in line 11 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. verify
B. misrepresent
C. recollect
D. conclude
Question 44. The paragraphs following the passage most likely discuss which of the following?
A. More information on the kinds of judgmental effects B. Other reasons for misjudgments of applicants
C. Other selection procedures included in interviewing D. More information on cognitive ability tests

Question 50. Most of the school-leavers are sanguine about the idea of going to work and earning money.
A. fearsome
B. expected
C. excited
D. optimistic
Question 51. The situation seems to be changing minute by minute.
A. from time to time B. time after time
C. again and again
D. very rapidly
Question 52: It was great to see monkeys in their natural habitat.
A. sky
B. land
C. forest
D. home
Question 53. Setting off on an expedition without thorough preparation and with inadequate equipment is tempting
fate.
A. Taking a risk
B. losing heart
C. having panic
D. going round in circles
Question 54. Peter didn’t mean to be disrespectful to his teacher. He just couldn’t control his temper.
A. Showing lack of trust
C. showing impolite behavior
B. Showing nervousness
D. showing lack of attention
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer for each of the questions
Every drop of water in the ocean, even in the deepest parts, responds to the forces that create the tides. No other force
that affects the sea is so strong. Compared with the tides, the waves created by the wind are surface movements felt no more
than a hundred fathoms below the surface. The currents also seldom involve more than the upper several hundred fathoms
despite their impressive sweep.

A. The Earth’s movement around the Sun
B. The triangular arrangement of the Earth, Sun, and Moon
C. Seasonal changes in the weather
D. The gravitational pull of the Sun and the Moon when nearly in line with the Earth
Question 59: The word correspondingly in line 8 is closest in meaning to____.
A. similarly
B. interestingly
C. unusually
D. unpredictably
Question 60: What is the main point of the first paragraph?
A. Despite the strength of the wind, it only moves surface water
B. The tides are the most powerful force to affect the movement of ocean water
C. Deep ocean water is seldom affected by forces that move water
D. The waves created by ocean currents are very large
Question 61: The words In reality in line 6 are closest in meaning to____.
A. characteristically
B. similarly
C. surprisingly
D. actually
Question 62: Where in the passage does the author mention movements of ocean water other than those caused by tides?
A.
Lines 1 – 4
B. Lines 7 - 9
C. Lines 11 - 14
D. Lines 9 - 11
Question 63: The word configuration in line 14 is closest in meaning to____.
A. surface
B. unit
C. arrangement
D. center

7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16

Đáp án
A
D
D
B
A
A
C
D
C
A
C
A
D
B
C
A

Question

C
D
B
D

Question
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48

Đáp án
C
D
D
C
B
A

A
D
D
D
A
C
C
A
D
D
A
B
D
A
C
C

65. The boss made her type these letters before going home.
66. The street which leads to my school is bad and narrow.
67. It hasn’t snowed here for 6 years.
- It is 6 years since it last snowed here.
- It last snowed here 6 years ago.
68. Sally encouraged Jack to apply for the job.
69. Michael congratulated Mary on winning/ having won the first prize in the singing contest at school.


ĐỀ THI THỬ KÌ THI THPT QG NĂM 2016
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH - ĐỀ 3
Thời gian: 90 phút
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following blanks.

Question 7. I haven’t had a ________ week. I seem to have done nothing at all.
A. extensive
B. productive
C. enthusiastic
D. economic
Question 8. All the plans have been put _________ for the time being.
A. down
B. up
C. aside
D. low
Question 9. We found some real _________ at the market.
A. prizes
B. goods
C. bargains
D. items
Question 10. There was a ____________________ table in the kitchen.
A. beautiful large round wooden
B. large beautiful round wooden
C. beautiful round large wooden
D. golden large beautiful round
Question 11. It was _________________ that we spent the whole day at the beach.
A. so nice a weather
B. such nice weather
C. such nice a weather
D. so a nice weather
Question 12. According to the conditions of my scholarship, after finishing my degree, ____.
A. my education will be employed by the university.
B. employment will be given to me by the university.
C. the university will employ me.
D. I will be employed by the university.

A. should have been
B. was
C. may have been
D. must have been
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main
stress in each of the following sentence.
Question 20. A. moaned
B presented
C. viewed
D. robbed
Question 21. A. position
B. consider
C. visit
D. president
Choose the word whose main stressed syllable is different from the rest.
Question 22. A. apply
B. persuade
C. reduce
Question 23. A. different
B. important
C. impressive
Question 24. A. familiar
B. impatient
C. uncertain

D. offer
D. attractive
D. arrogant

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the

Question 26. It can be inferred from the passage that______.
A. Jellyfish and starfish do not have brain.
B. The number of neurons in the cortex is about 15 – 33 billion, irrespective of age and gender.
C. The sponge has brain but not nervous system.
D. Neurons communicate with one another by targeting themselves to specific recipient cells.
Question 27. The word “linked” in the 2nd paragraph could be best replaced by______.
A. chained
B. connected
C. bundled
D. interfered
Question 28. Which the following is mentioned in the passage?
A. Sponges, which have no central nervous system, are capable of coordinated body contractions and locomotion.
B. All animals have brain protected in skull.
C. 1 cm3 in cerebral cortex contains about 1,000,000,000 synapses.
D. Neural circuitry in spinal cord can control even complex response to stimuli from external environment.
Question 29. The word “This” in the 3rd paragraph refers to:
A. the brain
B. the action of the brain
C. response
D. hormones and neurotransmitters
Question 30. Which of the following is impossible without the brain?
A. extracting information from the environment and acting in response to it.
B. generating reflex responses as well as simple motor patterns such as swimming or walking.
C. control behavior on the basis of complex sensory input which requires the information-integrating capabilities
D. coordinated body contractions and even locomotion
Question 31. The word “decipher” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to______.
A. decode
B. devalued
C. observe
D. distract

B. harmless
C. harmful
D. harms
Question 36. A. off
B. away
C. over
D. forever
Question 37. A. fed with
B. feed on
C. fed up with
D. feed
Question 38. A. flame
B. fires
C. blaze
D. burning
Question 39. A. fly
B. in
C. go
D. out
Question 40. A. moats
B. ditches
C. bridges
D. dams
Question 41. A. on
B. around
C. over
D. under
Question 42. A. hills
B. jungles
C. forests

C
D
Question 49. The enclosing card gives details about room rates and services.
A
B
C
D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the
following questions.
The Fukushima I nuclear accidents are a series of ongoing equipment failures and releases of radioactive materials at
the Fukushima I Nuclear Power Plant, following the 9.0 magnitude Tōhoku earthquake and tsunami on 11 March 2011. The
plant comprises six separate boiling water reactors maintained by the Tokyo Electric Power Company (TEPCO). This accident
is the largest of the 2011 Japanese nuclear accidents arising from the Tōhoku earthquake and tsunami, and experts consider it
to be the second largest nuclear accident after the Chernobyl disaster, but more complex as all reactors are involved.
At the time of the quake, reactor 4 had been de-fueled while 5 and 6 were in cold shutdown for planned maintenance.
The remaining reactors shut down automatically after the earthquake, with emergency generators starting up to run the control
electronics and water pumps needed to cool reactors. The plant was protected by a seawall designed to withstand a 5.7 metres
(19 ft) tsunami but not the 14-metre (46 ft) maximum wave which arrived 41–60 minutes after the earthquake. The entire plant
was flooded, including low-lying generators and electrical switchgear in reactor basements and external pumps for supplying
cooling seawater. The connection to the electrical grid was broken. All power for cooling was lost and reactors started to
overheat, due to natural decay of the fission products created before shutdown. The flooding and earthquake damage hindered
external assistance.
Evidence soon arose of partial core meltdown in reactors 1, 2, and 3; hydrogen explosions destroyed the upper
cladding of the buildings housing reactors 1, 3, and 4; an explosion damaged the containment inside reactor 2; multiple fires
broke out at reactor 4. Despite being initially shutdown, reactors 5 and 6 began to overheat. Fuel rods stored in pools in each
reactor building began to overheat as water levels in the pools dropped. Fears of radiation leaks led to a 20-kilometre (12 mi)
radius evacuation around the plant while workers suffered radiation exposure and were temporarily evacuated at various times.
One generator at unit 6 was restarted on 17 March allowing some cooling at units 5 and 6 which were least damaged. Grid
power was restored to parts of the plant on 20 March, but machinery for reactors 1 through 4, damaged by floods, fires and
explosions, remained inoperable. Flooding with radioactive water through the basements of units 1–4 continues to prevent

A. The cause of the accident is the Tōhoku earthquake and tsunami.
B. The earthquake causes a great damage to Japan and the neighboring country.
C. The tsunami struck the country after the earthquake had occurred approximately an hour.
D. The reactor was barred from external assistance because of the flooding and earthquake damage.
Question 55. According to the passage, which of the followings is NOT true?
A. The plant suffered a 14-metre seawall.
B. The highest wave was 46 ft in height.
C. The reactor 5 and 6 started overheating though they were in cold shutdown for maintenance.
D. The flood with water containing radioactivity made it impossible for the machinery to be repaired.
Question 56. According to the passage, which of the following can be inferred?
A. The Chernobyl disaster happened in the late 19 th century.
B. Food was banned from sale for fear that the country would run out of food.
C. The people in Tokyo were advised not to use tap water to cook for children.
D. Two workers were sent to hospital as they were exposed to radiation when standing in water in unit 3.
Question 57. The word “inoperable” in the passage could be best replaced by_____.
A. incompatible
B. impracticable
C. irrepressible
D. mysterious
Question 58. When the earthquake occurred, how many plants were inactive?
A. 3
B. 4, 5, 6
C. 5, 6
D. 5
Question 59. Why does the author mention “plutonium contamination” in the last paragraph?
A. to show that the Japanese discovered plutonium mine after the nuclear accident.
B. to show that plutonium was contaminated after the nuclear accident.
C. to show that the soil was polluted by plutonium.
D. to give an example of soil containing natural resource.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is closest meaning to the underlined part in each of

65. It won’t be possible for me to come back home this week because I’m too busy.
- I’m afraid……………………………………………………………………..
66. Mr Jones remembered the date, and so did his wife.
- Mr Jones didn’t………………………………………………………………..


67. The lesson was so boring that Lan fell asleep.
- It……………………………………………………………………………
68. Peter is my close friend. His father is a policeman.
- Peter, whose………………………………………………………………..
69. “Would you like to come to my party tomorrow?” Jean invited me.
- Jean……………………………………………………………………….
Part 2: In about 120 words, write a paragraph about the advantages of computers.

-------------HẾT---------

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 3
Question
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12

23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32

Đáp án
B
A
D
B
B
D
A
D
C
A
B
A
B
C
A
B

Question

C
B
B
A

WRITING:
65. I’m afraid I won’t be able to come back home this week because I’m too busy.
66. Mr. Jones didn’t forget the date, and neither did his wife.
67. It was such a boring lesson that lan fell asleep.
68. Peter, whose father is a policeman, is my close friend.
69. Jean invited me to come to her party the next day.

Question
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
61
62
63
64



D. slaughter

Question 2. A. dealt

B. dreamt

C. heal

D. jealous

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position
of the main stress in each of the following questions, questions from 3 - 5
Question 3. A. sandal

B. canal

C. rental

D. vandal

Question 4. A. memorial

B. desirable

C. reliable

D. admirable

Question 5. A. successive

D. use to listen.

- “ _____”
C. You're welcome

D. Welcome you.

Question 9. ________ being tired, I went for a picnic with my family.
A. That

B. Since

C. Although

D. Despite

Question 10. Preparing for a job interview can be very _____.
A. stress

B. stressful

C. stressed

D. stressing

Question 11. This knife is very blunt. It needs _____
A. sharpeningly

B. sharpen



Question 15. She is very absent-minded. She _____ her cell phone three times.
A. has lost

B. loses

C. was losing

Question 16. - “You look ill. What’s wrong with you?”
A. No, sir.

B. No matter.

D. had lost

- “_____”

C. Not at all.

D. Nothing.


Question 17. He is unhappy because his parents do not _____ very well.
A. get over

B. get off

C. get on

D. get away

A. leisure

B. entertainment

C. fun

D. amusement

Question 22. I was not _________ to go to parties in the evening until I reached the age of eighteen.
A. permitted

B. permission

C. permitting

D. permit

Question 23. Working hours will fall to under 35 hours a week, _____?
A. will they

B. won't they

C. won't it

D. will it

Question 24. This factory produced ______ motorbikes in 2008 as in the year 2006.
A. twice as many

B. as twice as many


C. for his office

D. unharmed

Question 28. Ozone layer acts as an umbrella against most of the Sun’s dangerous rays.
A. Ozone

B. as an

C. most

D. the Sun’s

Question 29. Neither Jane nor Sarah explained me why they were so late.
A. Neither

B. nor

C. explained me

D. why they were

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined part in each of the following questions, questions 36 - 37
Question 30. The International Organizations are going to be in a temporary way in the country.
A. permanent

B. guess



B. record

C. categorize

D. diversify

Question 34. S. Mayo Hospital in New Orleans was so named in recognition of Dr. Mayo’s outstanding
humanitarianism.
A. exhaustive

B. charitable

C. remarkable

D. widespread

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 41 - 50.
The general principles of dynamics are rules that demonstrate a relationship between the motions of bodies
and the forces that produce those motions. Based in large part on the work of his predecessors, Sir Isaac Newton
deduced three laws of dynamics, which he published in his famous Principia.
Prior to Newton, Aristotle had established that the natural state of a body was a state of rest, and that unless
a force acted upon it to maintain motion, a moving body would come to rest. Galileo had succeeded in correctly
describing the behavior of falling objects and in recording that no force was required to maintain a body in motion.
He noted that the effect of force was to change motion. Huygens recognized that a change in the direction of motion
involved acceleration, just as did a change in speed, and further, that the action of a force was required. Kepler
deduced the laws describing the motion of planets around the sun. It was primarily from Galileo and Kepler that
Newton borrowed.
In short, Newton’s laws of Motion are: (1) a body at rest remains at rest, and a body in motion remains in


B. Kepler

C. Aristotle

D. Newton

Question 39. The word “it” in line 6 refers to _____
A. rest

B. body

C. state

D. motion

Question 40. Who was the first scientist to correctly describe the behavior of falling objects?
A. Aristotle

B. Newton

C. Kepler

D. Galileo

Question 41. According to Huygens, when was acceleration required?
A. For either a change in direction or a change in speed
B. Only for a change in speed
C. Only for a change in direction
D. Neither for a change in direction nor for a change in speed

the strange guyot, or flat-topped seamount. No marine geologist even suspected the existence of these isolated
mountains until they were discovered by geologist Harry H. Hess in 1946. He was serving at the time as naval
officer on a ship equipped with a fathometer. Hess named these truncated peaks for the nineteenth-century Swissborn geologist Arnold Guyot, who had served on the faculty of Princeton University for thirty years. Since then,
hundreds of guyots have been discovered in every ocean but the Arctic. Like offshore canyons, guyots present a
challenge to oceanographic theory. They are believed to be extinct volcanoes. Their flat tops indicate that they once
stood above or just below the surface, where the action of waves leveled off their peaks. Yet today, by definition,
their summits are at least 600 feet below the surface, and some are as deep as 8,200 feet. Most lie between 3,200 feet
and 6,500 feet. Their tops are not really flat but slope upward to a low pinnacle at the center. Dredging from the tops
of guyots has recovered basalt and coral rubble, and that would be expected from the eroded tops of what were once
islands. Some of this material is over 80 million years old. Geologists think the drowning of the guyots involved two
processes: The great weight of the volcanic mountains depressed the sea floor beneath them, and the level of the sea
rose a number of times, especially when the last Ice Age ended, some 8,000 to 11.000 years ago.
Question 45. What is the author's main purpose in writing this passage?


A. To trace the career of Arnold Guyot.
B. To describe feature of the undersea world.
C. To present the results of recent geologic research.
D. To discuss underwater ridges and volcano chains
Question 46. The word “conceal” in the passage is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. Contain

B. Erode

C. Hide

D. Create

Question 47. The passage implies that guyots were first detected by means of_____
A. a fathometer

B. between 600 and 3,200 feet.

C. between 3,200 and 6,500 feet

D. more than 8,200 feet

Question 52. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “rubble” in the passage?
A. Fragments

B. Mixture

C. Columns

D. Core

Question 53. According to the passage, which of the following two processes were involved in the submersion of
guyots?
A. Erosion and volcanic activity.
B. The sinking of the sea floor and the rising of sea level.
C. Mountain building and the action of ocean currents
D. High tides and earthquakes
Question 54. According to the passage, when did sea level significantly rise?
A. In 1946

B. In the nineteenth century

C. From 8,000 to 11,000 years

D. 80 million years ago



C. lightly

D. lighted

A. possible

B. capable

C. probable

D. likely

A. continued

B. chased

C. followed

D. taken

A. each one

B. one other

C. the other one

D. one another

A. relation


C. sensitivity

A. inactive

B. inaccurate

C. inappropriate

D. exchanged
D. sensible
D. inexact

WRITING:
Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it
1. She knows more about it than I do.
 I don’t .....................................................................................
2. Although he had a good salary, he was unhappy in his job.
 In spite ....................................................................................
3. He prefers golf to tennis.
 He’d rather .............................................................................
4. The garden still needs digging.
 The garden hasn’t....................................................................
5. Susan felt sick, because she ate four cream cakes.
 If Susan...................................................................................

Topic: Who is your best friend? Describe this person and say why he/she is your best friend.


KEY

D
A
A
C
D
B
C
B
C
C
A
D
C
A
B
B
A
A
B
A

25.
26.
27.
28.
29.

A
A
C

51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
61
62
63
64

A
B
B
C
C
A
A
A
C
B
D
A
D
B
A

MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH - ĐỀ 5
Thời gian: 90 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that has its underlined part pronounced
differently from the other three words in each question.
Question 1. A. language
B. aviation
C. attraction
D. applicant
Question 2. A. nervous
B. birthday
C. worry
D. third
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of
the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. accomplish B. establish
C. abolish
D. acronym
Question 4. A. companion B. comfortable
C. compliment
D. competence
Question 5. A. mechanic
B. memorial
C. mechanism
D. machine
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correcting.
Question 6. Children’s games, which are amusements involve more than one individual,
A
appear to be culturally universal.
B

A. although
B. nevertheless
C. however
D. B or C
Question 13. Have you really got no money_______the fact that you've had a part-time job this term?
A. although
B. in spite of
C. because of
D. in case
Question 14. The doctor gave the patient............ examination to discover the cause of his collapse.
A. a thorough
B. a whole
C. an exact
D. a universal
Question 15. Her book is about the_______between women and men.
A. unequality
B. disequality
C. inequality
D. non-equality
Question 16. This section of the car park is_______for visitors.
A. private
B. reserved
C. given
D. put
Question 17. The role of women in society has been greatly _______in the last few years.
A. overlooked
B. overtaken
C. overcome
D. overcast
Question 18. Only 40 % of 5-year-olds have_______ to pre-school children.

A. What's more
B. Furthermore
C. Apart from
D. From


Question 25.

“ How long is the seminar ?”
“ ------------ knowledge, it takes about three hours.”
A. To my best
B. To the best of my C. In my best of
D. In my best
Question 26. Question 45. Not until ............ home ........... that he had taken someone else's bike.
A. he got/ he realized
B. he got/ did he realize
C. did he get/ he realized
D. he got/ he did realize
Question 27. - Did your brother go to France ?
- No, our parents suggested that we------- there at night.
A. not go
B. not going
C. not to go
D. won’t go
Question 28. - Why not open the windows to let --------- clean air in ?
- I’d rather you didn’t . ------------- air in our town is quite polluted ?
A. 0 (nothing)- 0
B. 0- The
C. a- The
D. The- 0

B. introduce
B. is said
B. information
B. with
B. provide
B. willing
B. Consequently
B. what
B. exchange

C. single
C. distinguish
C. indicates
C. elements
C. of
C. give
C. going
C. However
C. which
C. transform

D. branch
D. compare
D. means
D. properties
D. to
D. take
D. happened
D. Unfortunately
D. it

A. Because fossil fuels are no longer available.
B. Because global warming has increased the amount of sunlight that reaches the earth.
C. Because they are free and available worldwide.
D. Because conventional energy resources are being depleted, and they cause environmental damage.
Question 42. Which of the following words could best replace the word “ harnessing”
A. Capturing
B. Harassing
C. Depleting
D. Exporting
Question 43. According to the passage, what can be inferred about solar roof tiles?
A. They are being used in many undeveloped countries.
B. They can convert geothermal energy to electricity.
C. They are more expensive than solar panels.
D. They contain photovoltaic cells.
Question 44. According to the passage, how is solar energy production similar to geothermal energy production ?
A. They both require the use of a generator.
B. They both use heat from the earth’s surface.
C. They both require fairly simple technology.
D. They are both conventional and costly.
Question 45. Where is the best place in the passage to insert the following sentence:
“ Although the US is not utilizing geothermal resources to this extent, the Western US has a similar capacity to
generate geothermal power”
A. after the phrase ” earth-friendly”
B. after the phrase “ growing steadily”
C. after the phrase “ by geothermal power”
D. after the phrase “ global scale”
Question 46. According to the passage, which of the following is true about solar power ?
A. There is very little of it available in Iceland.
B. It is being used in 100, 000 private homes worldwide.
C. It is 6,000 times more powerful than energy from fossil fuels.